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It is obvious that the integration of Rq(t) gives Rq+1(t):

and in general:

Does it imply that:
(where
is the inverse
of
)? If we apply the operator
to the sum Rp+q(t)+Pn(t),
we get for
:
![\begin{displaymath}
{\bf D}^p[R_{q+p}(t)+P_n(t)]=R_q(t).\end{displaymath}](img93.gif)
But
, so:
|  |
(14) |
Next: Hilbert transformation
Up: 2: THE STANDARD DISCONTINUITIES
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Stanford Exploration Project
1/13/1998